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@ -3043,72 +3043,626 @@ NOSE - North Odd, South Even. (+500ft for VFR)
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#### 16.75 Airspace
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16.75.2 State the rules pertaining to operating VFR in the various classes of airspace. CAR Part 91 & AIP ENR
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16.75.4 Describe the vertical limits and purpose of control zones (CTR). CAR Part 71
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16.75.6 Describe the vertical limits and purpose of control areas (CTA). CAR Part 71
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16.75.8 State the status and conditions relating to flight in VFR transit lanes. AIP ENR
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16.75.10 Describe the status and purpose of a general aviation area (GAA). CAR Part 91 & AIP ENR
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16.75.12 Describe visual reporting points.
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16.75.14 Describe the status of controlled airspace when ATC go off duty. AIP GEN
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16.75.16 State the restrictions on operating an aircraft in a restricted area. CAR Part 91 & AIP ENR
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16.75.18 State the restrictions on operating an aircraft in a military operating area (MOA). CAR Part 91 & AIP ENR
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16.75.20 State the restrictions and operating considerations relating to operating an aircraft in a mandatory broadcast zone (MBZ). CAR Part 91 & AIP ENR
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16.75.22 State the restrictions and operating considerations relating to operating an aircraft in a volcanic hazard zone (VHZ). CAR Part 91 & AIP ENR
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16.75.24 State the restrictions and operating considerations relating to operating an aircraft in a danger area. CAR Part 91 & AIP ENR
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16.75.26 State the restrictions and operating considerations relating to operating an aircraft in a designated low flying zone (LFZ). CAR Part 91 & AIP ENR
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16.75.28 State the operating considerations relating to operating an aircraft in a common frequency zone (CFZ). AIP ENR
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16.75.30 State the operating considerations relating to operating an aircraft over or close to temporary hazards/airspace. AIP ENR
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16.75.32 Interpret airspace information on aeronautical charts used for VFR flights.
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##### 16.75.2 State the rules pertaining to operating VFR in the various classes of airspace. CAR Part 91 & AIP ENR
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**Class A** - IFR flights only are permitted. All flights are provided with air traffic control service and are separated from each other.
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**Class B** - IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All flights are provided with air traffic control service and are separated from each other.
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**Class C** - IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All flights are provided with air traffic control service and separation is provided between IFR flights, IFR and VFR flights, and IFR and SVFR flights. Separation is provided between SVFR flights when the flight visibility is reported to be less than 5 km. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights.
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**Class D** - IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are provided with air traffic control service. Separation is provided between IFR flights, IFR and SVFR flights, and SVFR flights when the flight visibility is reported to be less than 5 km. Traffic information is provided to IFR flights about VFR flights, and to VFR flights about IFR flights and other VFR flights. Traffic avoidance advice is provided to IFR and VFR flights on request.
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**Class E** - IFR and VFR flights are permitted. IFR flights are provided with air traffic control service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practicable. Class E is not used for control zones.
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**Class F** - . IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if required.
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**Class G** - IFR and VFR flights are permitted and receive flight information service if requested.
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##### 16.75.4 Describe the vertical limits and purpose of control zones (CTR). CAR Part 71
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Above 3000ft, must coincide with VFR cruising altitude or FL.
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If traffic density / pattern requires controlled airspace.
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***71.55 Control zones***
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*(a) The Director may designate as a control zone that portion of airspace around an aerodrome if—*
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*(1) the Director determines that an aerodrome control service or an aerodrome and approach control service is required; and*
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*(2) the traffic density and pattern requires controlled airspace.*
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*(b) A control zone must be as small as practicably consistent with the need to protect the flight paths of IFR flights arriving at and departing from the aerodrome.*
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*(c) The lateral limits of a control zone must—*
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*(1) encompass at least those portions of the airspace that are not within a control area containing the paths of IFR flights arriving at and departing from the aerodrome under IMC; and*
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*(2) extend to at least 5 NM from the centre of the aerodrome in the directions from which instrument approaches may be made; and*
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*(3) take into account the category of IFR aircraft using the aerodrome and the areas of airspace that need to be protected for those IFR flights.*
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*(d) Prominent geographical features must be used, where practical, to define the lateral limits of a control zone.*
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*(e) A control zone with an upper limit above 3000 feet AMSL must coincide with a VFR cruising altitude or flight level prescribed in Part 91.*
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##### 16.75.6 Describe the vertical limits and purpose of control areas (CTA). CAR Part 71
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Must not exceed FL600. Lower limit must be at least 500 feet below lowest IFR flight path. No less than 700ft AGL.
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***71.53 Control areas***
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*(a) The Director may specify a control area designated under this Part as—*
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*(1) a terminal control area if the Director determines that an approach control service is required at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes; or*
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*(2) an upper control area if the Director determines that an area control service is required; or*
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*(3) an oceanic control area if the Director determines that an area control service is required over the high seas.*
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*(b) The upper limit of a control area must not exceed flight level 660.*
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*(c) The lower limit of a control area must—*
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*(1) be at least 500 feet below the flight paths of IFR flights that the Director determines to require an air traffic control service; and*
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*(2) be established at—*
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*(i) the highest practical altitude; and*
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*(ii) not less than 700 feet above the surface of the earth; and*
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*(3) when the lower limit of a control area is above 3000 feet AMSL, coincide with a VFR cruising altitude or flight level prescribed in Part 91.*
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*(d) If a portion of airspace below a control area is designated as another control area, the upper limit of the lower control area must extend to the lower limit of the control area directly above it.*
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##### 16.75.8 State the status and conditions relating to flight in VFR transit lanes. AIP ENR
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Part of controlled airspace marked as Class G during daylight hours only.
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***ENR 5.5 - 2 VFR Transit Lanes***
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*2.1.1 A VFR transit lane is part of a CTR or a CTA released as Class G (uncontrolled) airspace, during daylight hours only, to allow VFR aircraft to transit through airspace not normally used by IFR aircraft.*
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*2.1.2 When a VFR transit lane is active, aircraft operating under VFR may enter and operate within the lane without a clearance or reference to ATC.*
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*2.1.3 VFR transit lanes are depicted on VNC with the designation T---*
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##### 16.75.10 Describe the status and purpose of a general aviation area (GAA). CAR Part 91 & AIP ENR
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***ENR 5.5 - 1 General Aviation Areas***
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*1.1 Description*
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*1.1.1 GAA are part of a CTR or a CTA released as class G airspace during daylight hours to facilitate VFR operations, including glider and powered VFR activity. Pilots are reminded that VFR training or glider flying activity is not confined to GAA.*
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*1.1.2 Within an active GAA pilots are not required to conform to the VFR cruising levels specified in CAR 91.313 (a).*
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*1.1.3 GAA are depicted on VNC and Area charts. High level GAA are depicted on VPC. General aviation areas are depicted on charts with the designation G---.*
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***91.139 General aviation areas***
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*A pilot must not operate an aircraft within a general aviation area designated under Part 71—*
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*(1) during the night or using NVIS; or*
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*(2) during the day unless—*
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*(i) the general aviation area is active permanently during the day; or*
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*(ii) if the general aviation area is made active by the approval of the ATC unit responsible for the airspace, an approval has been given by the ATC unit to operate within the general aviation area and the pilot complies with any request from the ATC unit to vacate the general aviation area; or*
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*(iii) if the general aviation area is made active by notification from an airspace user to the ATC unit responsible for the airspace, prior notification has been given to the ATC unit, and the ATC unit has confirmed that the general aviation area is active.*
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##### 16.75.12 Describe visual reporting points.
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***71.251 Visual reporting points***
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*(a) The Director may designate visual reporting points for the purpose of—*
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*(1) facilitating the requirements of air traffic services for information regarding the progress of aircraft in flight; or*
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*(2) facilitating the safe conduct of flight by visual reference.*
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*(b) The Director must ensure that visual reporting points —*
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*(1) are based on prominent geographical features; and*
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*(2) are identified by names or designators that—*
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*(i) are easily recognisable in voice communications; and*
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*(ii) will not be confused with those of other reporting points in the same general area; and*
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*(iii) do not create confusion with other communications exchanged between pilots and between air traffic services and pilots.*
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##### 16.75.14 Describe the status of controlled airspace when ATC go off duty. AIP GEN
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***GEN 3.3 - 1.4 Services Within Controlled Airspace***
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***CTA and CTR not Operative***
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*1.4.5 When CTA and CTR are not operative, the rules and procedures for Class G airspace apply.*
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*1.4.6 When an ATC unit providing aerodrome and/or approach control closes watch, and a communications link is made available to a remote ATS unit, the remote ATS unit will only provide FIS in the appropriate airspace.*
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##### 16.75.16 State the restrictions on operating an aircraft in a restricted area. CAR Part 91 & AIP ENR
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***ENR 5.1 - 3 Restricted Areas***
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*3.1.2 Aircraft are not prohibited from operating within a restricted area, but may only enter an active restricted area with the prior approval of the designated administering authority. Pilots must not enter an active restricted area in anticipation of entry approval. Restricted areas are depicted on charts with the designation R (followed by a number), as the prefix NZ is omitted on aeronautical charts to reduce clutter.*
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***91.129 Restricted and danger areas***
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*(a) A pilot must not operate an aircraft within a restricted area designated under Part 71 unless that pilot—*
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*(1) has the approval of the administering authority responsible for the restricted area to operate within that area; and*
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*(2) complies with any conditions promulgated for operation within the restricted area; and*
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*(3) complies with any conditions imposed by the administering authority for operation within the restricted area.*
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*(b) A pilot must not operate an aircraft within a danger area designated under Part 71 unless that pilot has determined that the activity associated with the danger area will not affect the safety of the aircraft.*
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##### 16.75.18 State the restrictions on operating an aircraft in a military operating area (MOA). CAR Part 91 & AIP ENR
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***ENR 5.2 - 1 Military Operating Areas***
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*1.1.1 Military operating areas (MOA) are established to encompass intensive military operations, including live firing. Within any portion of an active MOA within NZ territory, an entry approval is required prior to entry from the designated administering authority in the same manner as a restricted area. Outside NZ territory (beyond the 12 NM limit) pilots of NZ registered aircraft must also receive an entry approval prior to entry. Non-NZ registered aircraft are not subject to entry control but should nevertheless identify their operation to the administering authority in the interests of aviation safety.*
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*1.1.2 Military operating areas are depicted on charts with the designation M---.*
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***91.133 Military operating areas***
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*A pilot must not operate an aircraft within a military operating area designated under Part 71 unless the pilot—*
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*(1) has the approval of the administering authority responsible for the military operating area—*
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*(i) to operate a New Zealand registered aircraft within the military operating area; or*
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*(ii) to operate a foreign aircraft within any portion of the military operating area that is within the territorial limits of New Zealand; and*
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*(2) complies with any conditions promulgated for operation within the military operating area; and*
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*(3) complies with any conditions imposed by the administering authority for operation within the military operating area.*
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##### 16.75.20 State the restrictions and operating considerations relating to operating an aircraft in a mandatory broadcast zone (MBZ). CAR Part 91 & AIP ENR
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***ENR 5.3 - 4 Mandatory Broadcast Zones (MBZ)***
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*4.1.1 MBZ are established to provide increased protection to aircraft in areas of uncontrolled airspace where high density or special operations may occur.*
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*4.1.2 A pilot is required to broadcast position and intention reports on a specified frequency on entry, when joining an aerodrome traffic circuit, prior to entering a runway, and at regular specified intervals when operating within the MBZ.*
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*4.1.3 As an extra safety measure, landing lights or anti collision lights must be used when fitted.*
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*4.1.4 Non-radio (NORDO) aircraft must not enter a MBZ unless they have another station, such as an ATS unit or an aircraft, broadcasting the required reports on their behalf.*
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*4.1.5 Mandatory Broadcast Zones are depicted on charts with the designation B---.*
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***91.135 Mandatory broadcast zones***
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*(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c), a pilot must not operate an aircraft within a mandatory broadcast zone designated under Part 71 unless that pilot—*
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*(1) makes the following broadcasts on the radio frequency assigned to the mandatory broadcast zone:*
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*(i) **at entry** – the aircraft callsign, position and altitude, and the pilot’s intentions for flight within the mandatory broadcast zone:*
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*(ii) **when joining the aerodrome traffic circuit of an aerodrome within the mandatory broadcast zone** – the aircraft callsign, position and altitude, and the pilot’s intentions:*
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*(iii) **before entering a runway for take-off from an aerodrome within the mandatory broadcast zone** – the aircraft callsign, the runway to be used for take-off, and the pilot’s intentions for flight within the mandatory broadcast zone after take-off; and*
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*(iv) **at any other time at least at the intervals prescribed for the mandatory broadcast zone** – the aircraft callsign, position and altitude, and the pilot’s intentions for flight within the mandatory broadcast zone; and*
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*(2) maintains a listening watch on the radio frequency assigned to the mandatory broadcast zone; and*
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*(3) activates, if equipped, the aircraft’s landing lights or anti-collision lights.*
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*(b) Pilots of aircraft in formation may operate within a mandatory broadcast zone without complying with paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2), but only if—*
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*(1) all the pilots of the aircraft in formation comply with paragraph (a)(3); and*
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*(2) the pilot of the lead aircraft complies with paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2).*
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*(c) A pilot-in-command of an aircraft without an operable radio may operate within a mandatory broadcast zone for the purpose of enabling repairs to be made to that radio, but only if—*
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*(1) the pilot-in command complies with paragraph (a)(3); and*
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*(2) if practicable, the pilot-in-command arranges for another person to make the broadcasts required in paragraph (a)(1) on the pilot’s behalf.*
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*(d) The pilot-in-command of a parachute-drop aircraft intending to drop a parachutist within or into a mandatory broadcast zone must make a broadcast on the radio frequency assigned to the mandatory broadcast zone stating the aircraft callsign, position, altitude, and the intentions of the person making the parachute descent before authorising that person to exit the aircraft to make the parachute descent.*
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##### 16.75.22 State the restrictions and operating considerations relating to operating an aircraft in a volcanic hazard zone (VHZ). CAR Part 91 & AIP ENR
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***ENR 5.3 - 3 Volcanic Hazard Zones***
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*3.1.1 Volcanic Hazard Zones (VHZ) have special conditions that must be complied with before entry and operation within the airspace. There is no administering authority for entry to volcanic hazard zones.*
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*3.1.2 Volcanic Hazard Zones are depicted on charts with the designation V---.*
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*3.1.3 VHZ are established to provide increased protection to aircraft in an area where volcanic activity may be present. Operation within a VHZ requires pilots to operate in VMC by day, in order to be able to observe any volcanic ejecta or ash plume. Pilots intending to operate within a VHZ must therefore receive relevant NOTAM and SIGMET information.*
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*3.1.4 Volcanic activity at other places may require a temporary VHZ to be designated.*
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***91.137 Volcanic hazard zones***
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*A pilot must not operate an aircraft within a volcanic hazard zone designated under Part 71—*
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*(1) during the night or using NVIS; or*
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*(2) in IMC; or*
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*(3) in VMC during the day unless the pilot determines that, after considering all of the following, the volcanic hazard will not affect the safety of the flight:*
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*(i) relevant meteorological information contained in SIGMET:*
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*(ii) NOTAM information;*
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*(iii) other information provided for this purpose by an organisation that holds a meteorological service certificate issued by the Director under the Act and Part 174.*
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##### 16.75.24 State the restrictions and operating considerations relating to operating an aircraft in a danger area. CAR Part 91 & AIP ENR
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***ENR 5.1 - 4 Danger Areas***
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*4.1.1 Danger areas are established to warn pilots of an area where danger to aviation may be present. A danger area requires pilots to have due consideration of the danger present within the area prior to entering, but does not require approval from any agency.*
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*4.1.2 Danger areas are depicted on charts with the designation D---.*
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***91.129 Restricted and danger areas***
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*(a) A pilot must not operate an aircraft within a restricted area designated under Part 71 unless that pilot—*
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*(1) has the approval of the administering authority responsible for the restricted area to operate within that area; and*
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*(2) complies with any conditions promulgated for operation within the restricted area; and*
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*(3) complies with any conditions imposed by the administering authority for operation within the restricted area.*
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*(b) A pilot must not operate an aircraft within a danger area designated under Part 71 unless that pilot has determined that the activity associated with the danger area will not affect the safety of the aircraft.*
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##### 16.75.26 State the restrictions and operating considerations relating to operating an aircraft in a designated low flying zone (LFZ). CAR Part 91 & AIP ENR
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***ENR 5.3 - 2 Low Flying Zones***
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*2.1.1 Low flying zones (LFZ) are established to allow low level flight training by using agencies (normally training organisations). Pilots not associated with the designated using agency are required to obtain a briefing and comply with any conditions that may be applicable to the LFZ, as a result of the agreement between the designated using agency and the landowner or lessee. A LFZ is active only during daylight hours when it is being used, from the surface to 500 ft AGL.*
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*2.1.2 It should be noted that military low level flying may be conducted throughout the New Zealand FIR outside controlled airspace, clear of built-up areas, aerodromes, restricted areas, LFZ, and other such locations as identified in RNZAF low flying orders.*
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*2.1.3 LFZ are depicted on charts with the designation L---.*
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***91.131 Low flying zones***
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*(a) A pilot must not operate an aircraft within a low flying zone designated under Part 71 —*
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*(1) during the night or using NVIS; or*
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*(2) during the day unless—*
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*(i) the pilot—*
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*(A) is receiving dual flight instruction; or*
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*(B) holds an instructor rating issued under Part 61; or*
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*(C) is briefed on the boundaries of the low flying zone and the method of entry and exit from the low flying zone and is authorised for that flight by the holder of an instructor rating issued under Part 61; and*
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*(ii) the pilot has been briefed by the using agency on the conditions of operation for flight within the low flying zone; and*
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*(iii) the pilot complies with the conditions of operation for flight within the low flying zone; and*
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*(iv) before entering the low flying zone, the pilot broadcasts on the appropriate VHF frequency details of the flight and the proposed duration in the low flying zone; and*
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*(v) the pilot maintains a listening watch on the appropriate VHF frequency while in the low flying zone and broadcasts or reports on vacating the low flying zone.*
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*(aa) Despite paragraph (a), a person may operate an aircraft within a low flying zone designated under Part 71 during the night and use NVIS if the person is giving or receiving flight instruction on the use of NVIS.*
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*(b) A pilot operating an aircraft within a low flying zone designated under Part 71 must ensure that the aircraft is operated without hazard to persons or property on the surface.*
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*(c) A pilot operating an aircraft within a low flying zone designated under Part 71 must not carry a passenger on the aircraft.*
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##### 16.75.28 State the operating considerations relating to operating an aircraft in a common frequency zone (CFZ). AIP ENR
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***ENR 5.3 - Common Frequency Zones (CFZ)***
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*5.1.1 CFZ have been established to encourage pilots to use a single VHF frequency specified for the zone. Pilots should transmit their position, altitude and intentions relevant to prominent reporting points or features at entry, or at other times for traffic safety.*
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*5.1.2 CFZ are not mandatory and are advisory in nature*
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##### 16.75.30 State the operating considerations relating to operating an aircraft over or close to temporary hazards/airspace. AIP ENR
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***ENR 5.3 - 5 Temporary Hazards***
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*5.1.1 Occasionally, temporary special use airspace such as restricted or danger areas may also be prescribed by SUP or NOTAM when it is necessary to notify pilots of activity warranting such airspace. Pilots are reminded to obtain up-to-date information on temporary hazards by adequate pre-flight briefing whenever possible.*
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##### 16.75.32 Interpret airspace information on aeronautical charts used for VFR flights.
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*// TODO: Practical exercise*
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#### 16.76 Aerodromes and Heliports
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16.76.2 Describe the limitations on the use of a place as an aerodrome or heliport. CAR Part 91
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16.76.4 Describe the method of runway designation. AIP AD
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16.76.6 Describe the movement area of an aerodrome. CAR Part 1
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16.76.8 Describe the meaning of the various aerodrome ground signals.
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16.76.10 Interpret information on aerodrome/heliport charts. AIP GEN & AIP Volume 4
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16.76.12 Interpret runway, taxiway, apron, and stand signs and markings.
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##### 16.76.2 Describe the limitations on the use of a place as an aerodrome or heliport. CAR Part 91
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***91.127 Use of aerodromes***
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*(a) A person must not use any place as an aerodrome unless that place is suitable for the purpose of taking off or landing of the aircraft concerned.*
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*(b) A person must not operate an aircraft at an aerodrome unless—*
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*(1) that person complies with any limitations and operational conditions on the use of the aerodrome notified by the aerodrome operator; and*
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*(2) the runway, heliport, or water channel, is equipped with operable lighting, appropriate to that type of aircraft, when landing or taking off at night, and the lighting is activated; and*
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*(3) that person manoeuvres the aircraft clear of any manoeuvring area or part of any manoeuvring area that has been notified or marked as unsafe for aircraft use by the aerodrome operator; and*
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*(4) the runway, heliport, or water channel, is clear of all persons, animals, vehicles, vessels, or other obstructions during landing or take-off, other than persons, vehicles, or vessels essential to the operation.*
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*(c) A pilot must not operate an aircraft in an aerodrome traffic circuit unless the aircraft can be manoeuvred—*
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*(1) clear of any obstructions; and*
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*(2) without conflicting with the aerodrome traffic circuit or instrument approach procedure of any other aerodrome.*
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*(d) In addition to fulfilling the requirements of paragraphs (a), (b), and (c), a person must not operate a helicopter without ensuring that—*
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*(1) any place used as a heliport or as a place to hover within a congested area of a city, town, or settlement has—*
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*(i) physical characteristics; and*
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*(ii) obstacle limitation surfaces; and*
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*(iii) visual aids—*
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*commensurate with the ambient light conditions and the characteristics of the helicopter being operated; and*
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*(2) any place used as a heliport or as a place to hover that is outside a congested area of a city, town, or settlement—*
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*(i) is suitable for the helicopter to hover clear of obstructions; and*
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*(ii) for a heliport, has a surface area suitable for touchdown and lift-off; and*
|
||||
*(3) unless the helicopter is a performance Class 1 helicopter, any place used as a heliport or as a place to hover has such approach and take-off paths that an autorotative landing can be conducted without causing a hazard to any persons or property on the surface.*
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.76.4 Describe the method of runway designation. AIP AD
|
||||
|
||||
***AD 1.11 - 2.1 RWY Designation***
|
||||
*2.1.1 The runway or strip designation is a two-digit number based on the whole number nearest to one-tenth of the magnetic azimuth of the centreline when viewed from the direction of approach, e.g. if the magnetic azimuth of strip is 208°M, the runway will be designated as RWY 21*
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.76.6 Describe the movement area of an aerodrome. CAR Part 1
|
||||
|
||||
***Movement area** means that part of an aerodrome intended to be used for the take-off and landing of aircraft and for the surface movement of aircraft, and includes the manoeuvring area, maintenance areas, and aprons:*
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.76.8 Describe the meaning of the various aerodrome ground signals.
|
||||
|
||||
Red and White cone with the point pointing into wind - Active PLA.
|
||||
White letter "A" - Ag operations.
|
||||
White fabric arrow - Gliders active.
|
||||
White cross on manoeuvring area - Unfit for use.
|
||||
|
||||
![[Pasted image 20250727131658.png]]
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.76.10 Interpret information on aerodrome/heliport charts. AIP GEN & AIP Volume 4
|
||||
|
||||
*// TODO: Practical exercise*
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.76.12 Interpret runway, taxiway, apron, and stand signs and markings.
|
||||
|
||||
*// TODO: Practical exercise*
|
||||
|
||||
#### 16.78 Aerodromes Lighting
|
||||
|
||||
16.78.2 Describe the lighting intensity classifications.
|
||||
16.78.4 Describe the following lighting systems:
|
||||
(a) Runway edge lighting (REDL);
|
||||
(b) Runway landing threshold lighting (RTHL);
|
||||
(c) Runway end lighting (RENL);
|
||||
(d) Runway centreline lighting system (RCLL);
|
||||
(e) Runway end identifier lighting (REIL);
|
||||
(f) Circling guidance lighting (CGL);
|
||||
(g) Runway lead in lighting (RLLS);
|
||||
(h) Pilot activated lighting (PAL); and
|
||||
(i) Precision approach path indicators (PAPI).
|
||||
##### 16.78.2 Describe the lighting intensity classifications.
|
||||
|
||||
16.78.6 Describe aerodrome beacons.
|
||||
16.78.8 Describe the indication of above, on and below slope for:
|
||||
(a) PAPIs;
|
||||
(b) VASIS; and
|
||||
(c) T-VASIS.
|
||||
*Permanently installed runway lighting will be classified according to the available light intensity as either light intensity high (LIH), light intensity medium (LIM) or light intensity low (LIL). This intensity classification appears in the lighting box on the landing chart in AIPNZ.*
|
||||
|
||||
*On precision approach runways, high intensity lighting is normally provided with five stages of intensity control. Other runways are normally provided with two stage intensity lighting.*
|
||||
|
||||
*The initial intensity setting is selected by ATS to suit prevailing visibility requirements. Pilots may request alteration of the intensity setting to suit individual requirements.*
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.78.4 Describe the following lighting systems:
|
||||
|
||||
**(a) Runway edge lighting (REDL);**
|
||||
|
||||
*Is normally white for the usable portion of the runway.*
|
||||
|
||||
**(b) Runway landing threshold lighting (RTHL);**
|
||||
|
||||
*May extend across the full width of the runway or have a clear gap about the central section. This lighting is normally uni-directional green, visible from the approach direction.*
|
||||
|
||||
**(c) Runway end lighting (RENL);**
|
||||
|
||||
*Is installed across the end of the runway. It may extend across the full width of the runway or have a clear gap about the central section. This lighting is normally uni-directional red, visible from the direction of the runway.*
|
||||
|
||||
**(d) Runway centreline lighting system (RCLL);**
|
||||
|
||||
*A precision approach runway may also be provided with flush centre line lights over the whole length of the runway. This lighting will be coded to show white from the threshold to a point 914m from the runway end; alternate red and white between 914m and 300m from the runway end; and red between 300m and the runway end.*
|
||||
|
||||
**(e) Runway end identifier lighting (REIL);**
|
||||
|
||||
Comprises a very high intensity uni-directional light projector located on either side of the runway approximately 30m from the runway extended centre line and downwind of the landing threshold. The projectors are aligned to be visible from the approach direction, and are synchronised to flash simultaneously and to show brilliant white flashes at a rate of 60 flashes per minute. The projectors have two intensities.
|
||||
|
||||
**(f) Circling guidance lighting (CGL);**
|
||||
|
||||
*Circling Guidance Lighting (CGL) is installed to provide either: positive tracking in terrain or obstacle restricted circuit areas, or*
|
||||
|
||||
- *a clear indication of landing threshold from the latter portion of the downwind leg or from base leg and final approach in reduced visibility.*
|
||||
- *To provide positive tracking where terrain or obstacles restrict the circuiting area, a racetrack pattern of lights may be laid out to identify to a pilot the track to be followed. The system is normally used by night only.*
|
||||
|
||||
*To provide a clear indication of landing threshold, a system of high intensity white lights is used to identify and locate the landing threshold during the later part of the downwind leg and on base leg. These allow a pilot to determine the point at which to turn from the downwind leg onto base leg, and from base leg onto final approach. Two lights are located outboard of the threshold and a further light is positioned at the outer extremity of each crossbar of the approach light system. The lights at the threshold and on the two innermost crossbars are aligned in azimuth in the circuit direction and at 90º to the runway centre line. The lights on the third, fourth and fifth crossbars are aligned in azimuth at 80º, 60º, and 30º respectively from the runway centre line. All lights are elevated 6º above the horizontal so as to be visible in the appropriate areas of the circuit. The system does not provide a fixing service but is intended to indicate the threshold position from the circuiting area only, in conditions of reduced visibility by day and by night.*
|
||||
|
||||
*Where approach slope indicators are installed, the azimuth coverage of the circling guidance lighting is restricted so as not to be visible in the area of approach slope indicator coverage.*
|
||||
|
||||
**(g) Runway lead in lighting (RLLS);**
|
||||
|
||||
*Runway Lead in Lighting (RLLS) may be provided where additional lighting is required to provide positive tracking to an aerodrome or to the commencement of the approach lighting. RLLS is normally fixed or flashing omni-directional red lights. The outermost light may be a fixed or flashing amber and, where additional conspicuity is required, flashing omni-directional white lights may be provided.*
|
||||
|
||||
**(h) Pilot activated lighting (PAL); and**
|
||||
|
||||
*Aerodromes in New Zealand may be equipped with a pilot activated VHF switching system to operate runway and associated lighting. Details are contained in the appropriate aerodrome charts in the AIPNZ Vol 2, 3 and 4.*
|
||||
|
||||
*At most aerodromes lighting duration is 20 minutes and a standard system of keying of the aircraft transmitter on the designated frequency achieves various lighting changes as follows:*
|
||||
- ***Activation -** Five rapid and short transmissions, collectively not exceeding three seconds.*
|
||||
- ***Brilliance and runway selection -** After a 10 second warm up when first turned on, the lights switch to full brightness. To change intensity, repeat the activation sequence but hold the button down on the last transmission. The lighting intensity will continuously cycle until the transmit button is released. Where alternative runways are available the cycling will include changing to the next runway(s) and cycling their brilliance before starting the cycle again.*
|
||||
- ***Re-activation -** At any time a single transmission will reset the lighting timer for a further 20 minutes. Note: There is no warning prior to the lights turning off.*
|
||||
|
||||
*Instructions for operation of the non-standard systems at other aerodromes are detailed on the aerodrome charts in the AIPNZ Vol 2, 3 and 4.*
|
||||
|
||||
**(i) Precision approach path indicators (PAPI).**
|
||||
|
||||
**Precision Approach Path Indicator**
|
||||
A precision approach path indicator (PAPI) is a system of lights on the side of an airport runway threshold that provides visual descent guidance information during final approach. It is generally located on the left-hand side of the runway approximately 300 metres (980 ft) beyond the landing threshold of the runway.
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.78.6 Describe aerodrome beacons.**
|
||||
|
||||
***Application***
|
||||
*5.3.8 An aerodrome beacon must be provided at an aerodrome intended for use at night when aircraft navigate predominantly by visual means, reduced visibilities are frequent, or it is difficult to locate the aerodrome from the air due to surrounding lights or terrain.*
|
||||
|
||||
***Location***
|
||||
*5.3.9 The aerodrome beacon should be on or adjacent to the aerodrome, located to ensure that it is not shielded by objects in significant directions, and does not dazzle a pilot approaching to land.*
|
||||
|
||||
***Characteristics***
|
||||
*5.3.10 The aerodrome beacon should show white flashes only. The frequency of the flashes should be from 12 to 30 per minute. The light from the beacon should show at all angles of azimuth. The vertical light distribution should extend upwards from an elevation of not more than 1º to an elevation sufficient to provide guidance at the maximum elevation at which the beacon is intended to be used*
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.78.8 Describe the indication of above, on and below slope for:
|
||||
|
||||
**(a) PAPIs;**
|
||||
|
||||
4 Red / 0 White - Too low
|
||||
3 Red / 1 White - Slightly too low
|
||||
2 Red / 2 White - On glide slope
|
||||
1 Red / 3 White - Slightly too high
|
||||
0 Red / 4 White - Too high
|
||||
|
||||
**(b) VASIS; and**
|
||||
|
||||
All red + Down - Too low
|
||||
4 white bar + 3 white down - Very low
|
||||
...
|
||||
4 white bar - On glide slipe.
|
||||
4 white bar + 1 white up - Slightly too high
|
||||
4 white bar + N white up - More high
|
||||
|
||||
**Visual Approach Slope Indicator System**
|
||||
Basic visual approach slope indicators consist of one set of lights set up 7 metres (23 ft) from the start of the runway. Each light is designed so that it appears as either white or red, depending on the angle at which it is viewed. When the pilot is approaching the lights at the proper angle, meaning the pilot is on the glide slope, the first set of lights appears white and the second set appears red. When both sets appear white, the aircraft is too high, and when both appear red it is too low.
|
||||
|
||||
**(c) T-VASIS.**
|
||||
|
||||
**Tee Visual Approach Slope Indicator System**
|
||||
- when above the approach slope, see the wing bar(s) white, and one, two or three fly-down lights, the more fly-down lights being visible the higher the pilot will be above the approach slope;
|
||||
- when on the approach slope, see the wing bar(s) white; and
|
||||
- when below the approach slope, see the wing bar(s) and one, two or three fly-up lights white, the more fly-up lights being visible the lower the pilot will be below the approach slope, and, when well below the approach slope, see the wing bar(s) and the three fly-up lights red.
|
||||
|
||||
## Emergencies; Incidents; and Accidents
|
||||
|
||||
#### 16.80 Responsibilities of Operators and Pilots
|
||||
|
||||
16.80.2 State the requirement for the notification of accidents. CAR Part 12
|
||||
16.80.4 State the requirement for the notification of incidents. CAR Part 12
|
||||
16.80.6 State the extent to which a pilot may deviate from the CA Act or rules in an emergency situation. CA Act 2023 section 15(1) and 16(1) & (2)
|
||||
16.80.8 State the pilot action required following deviation from the CA Act or rules in an emergency situation. CA Act 2023 sections 15(2) and 16(3)
|
||||
##### 16.80.2 State the requirement for the notification of accidents. CAR Part 12
|
||||
|
||||
Initial notification ASAP.
|
||||
Full notification within 10 days.
|
||||
|
||||
***12.51 Initial notification of accident***
|
||||
*(a) In accordance with section 49 of the Act the pilot-in-command of an aircraft that is involved in an accident must notify the Authority of the accident as soon as practicable.*
|
||||
*(b) If the pilot-in-command cannot notify the Authority because they are injured or dead, or because the aircraft is missing, the operator must notify the Authority.*
|
||||
*(c) The notification under paragraph (a) must contain, where ascertainable, the—*
|
||||
*(1) date and time of the accident; and*
|
||||
*(2) nature of the accident; and*
|
||||
*(3) type, nationality, and registration marks of the aircraft; and*
|
||||
*(4) names of the aircraft owner and operator; and*
|
||||
*(5) position or last known position of the aircraft with reference to an easily defined geographical point; and*
|
||||
*(6) name of the pilot-in-command of the aircraft; and*
|
||||
*(7) type of operation; and*
|
||||
*(8) last point of departure of the aircraft; and*
|
||||
*(9) next point of intended landing of the aircraft; and*
|
||||
*(10) description of the sky condition, precipitation, wind velocity, and visibility; and*
|
||||
*(11) number of persons on board the aircraft; and*
|
||||
*(12) number of crew and passengers killed or seriously injured as a result of the accident; and*
|
||||
*(13) number of persons killed or seriously injured as a result of the accident that were not crew or passengers; and*
|
||||
*(14) details of damage to the aircraft.*
|
||||
|
||||
***12.53 Full notification of accident details***
|
||||
*(a) In addition to the initial notification requirements in rule 12.51, the pilot-in-command of an aircraft that is involved in an accident or, if that person is fatally or seriously injured, the operator, must provide the details required by the approved CAA form to the Authority within 10 days of the accident—*
|
||||
*(1) on the approved CAA form; or*
|
||||
*(2) by a means acceptable to the Authority.*
|
||||
*(b) The details required by paragraph (a) must include a statement by each flight crew member who was on the aircraft at the time of the accident, detailing the facts, conditions, and circumstances relating to the accident.*
|
||||
*(c) Where a flight crew member is incapacitated, the statement required by paragraph (b) must be submitted as soon as the flight crew member is able.*
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.80.4 State the requirement for the notification of incidents. CAR Part 12
|
||||
|
||||
Notify ASAP. (Part 119 Ops - Must notify within 72 hours).
|
||||
Full details within 14 days
|
||||
|
||||
***12.55 Notification of incident***
|
||||
*(a) If the holder of a certificate issued by the Director under the Act and the following Parts is involved in an incident that is a serious incident or an immediate hazard to the safety of an aircraft operation, they must notify the incident to the Authority as soon as practicable:*
|
||||
*(1) Parts 115, 119, 129 and 137— aircraft incident, or dangerous goods incident:*
|
||||
*(2) Part 172— airspace incident:*
|
||||
*(3) Parts 171 and 174 — facility malfunction incident:*
|
||||
*(4) Parts 19, 47, 115, 119, 129, 137, 145, 146, and 148 — defect incident:*
|
||||
*(5) Parts 119, 129, 139, 140, 171, and 172 — security incident:*
|
||||
*(6) Part 139 — aerodrome incident:*
|
||||
*(7) Parts 139, 171, 173, 174, and 175 — promulgated information incident:*
|
||||
*(8) Parts 119, 129, and 109 — cargo security incident.*
|
||||
*(b) A person who is involved in an incident that is a serious incident or an immediate hazard to the safety of an aircraft operation must notify the Authority of the incident as soon as practicable if the person—*
|
||||
*(1) operates, maintains, services, or does any other act in respect of an aircraft, aeronautical product, or aviation related service; and*
|
||||
*(2) is not employed by, or associated with, the holder of a certificate referred to in paragraph (a); or*
|
||||
*(3) has responsibilities under Part 95.*
|
||||
*(c) A pilot-in-command of an aircraft that is involved in an airspace incident or a bird incident must notify the Authority of the incident as soon as practicable if the incident is a serious incident or an immediate hazard to the safety of an aircraft operation.*
|
||||
*(d) The notification of an incident required by paragraphs (a), (b), (c) and (e) must contain, where ascertainable, information in accordance with the following:*
|
||||
*(1) for an airspace incident, Appendix A(a):*
|
||||
*(2) for a defect incident, Appendix A(b):*
|
||||
*(3) for a facility malfunction incident, Appendix A(c):*
|
||||
*(4) for an aircraft incident, Appendix A(d):*
|
||||
*(5) for a security incident, Appendix A(e):*
|
||||
*(6) for a promulgated information incident, Appendix A(f):*
|
||||
*(7) for an aerodrome incident, Appendix A(g):*
|
||||
*(8) for a cargo security incident, Appendix A(h):*
|
||||
*(9) for a dangerous goods incident, bird incident, or any other incident, Appendix A(i).*
|
||||
*(e) Despite paragraph (a), a holder of—*
|
||||
*(1) an air operator certificate issued by the Director under the Act and Part 119 must notify the Authority of an aircraft incident or a defect incident within 72 hours of the incident occurring if the incident is associated with an aircraft that is performing or is used to perform an EDTO and the incident involves—*
|
||||
*(i) an in-flight shutdown of a propulsion system; or*
|
||||
*(ii) a diversion or a turn back; or*
|
||||
*(iii) an in flight, inadvertent fuel loss or unavailability of fuel or an un-correctable fuel imbalance; or*
|
||||
*(iv) a malfunction of an EDTO significant system; or*
|
||||
*(v) any other occurrence which affects the safety of an EDTO; and*
|
||||
*(2) an aircraft maintenance organisation certificate issued under the Act and in accordance with Part 145 must notify the Authority of a defect incident within 72 hours of the incident occurring if the incident is associated with an aircraft that is used to perform an EDTO and—*
|
||||
*(i) the incident involves a malfunction of an EDTO significant system; or*
|
||||
*(ii) any other defect that could affect the safety of an aircraft performing an EDTO.*
|
||||
|
||||
***12.57 Details of incident***
|
||||
*(a) In addition to the initial incident notification requirements in rule 12.55, the following persons who were involved in the incident must provide the Authority the details required by the applicable forms specified in paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2):*
|
||||
*(1) a holder of a certificate referred to in rule 12.55(a):*
|
||||
*(2) a person referred to in rule 12.55(b):*
|
||||
*(3) a pilot-in-command referred to in rule 12.55(c).*
|
||||
*(b) A person who is required under paragraph (a) to provide the Authority with details of an incident must provide those details within 14 days of the incident—*
|
||||
*(1) on the approved CAA form; or*
|
||||
*(2) on the approved CAA form for a defect incident; or*
|
||||
*(3) by another means that is acceptable to the Authority.*
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.80.6 State the extent to which a pilot may deviate from the CA Act or rules in an emergency situation. CA Act 2023 section 15(1) and 16(1) & (2)
|
||||
|
||||
When safer to breach files than not.
|
||||
|
||||
***15 Duties of pilot-in-command in emergencies arising in flight***
|
||||
*(1) In an emergency arising in flight, the pilot-in-command may breach civil aviation legislation only if the pilot-in-command is satisfied that—*
|
||||
*(a) the emergency involves a danger to life or property; and*
|
||||
*(b) the extent of the breach goes only as far as is necessary to deal with the emergency; and*
|
||||
*(c) there is no other reasonable means of alleviating, avoiding, or assisting with the emergency; and*
|
||||
*(d) the degree of danger involved in complying with the provision is clearly greater than the degree of danger involved in deviating from it.*
|
||||
|
||||
***16 Duties of pilot-in-command and operator in emergencies not arising in flight***
|
||||
*(1) In an emergency not arising in flight, the pilot-in-command of the aircraft or the operator of the aircraft may breach civil aviation legislation only if—*
|
||||
*(a) the emergency involves a danger to life or property that necessitates the urgent transportation of persons or medical or other supplies for the protection of life or property; and*
|
||||
*(b) the extent of the breach goes only as far as is necessary to deal with the emergency; and*
|
||||
*(c) there is no other reasonable means of alleviating, avoiding, or assisting with the emergency; and*
|
||||
*(d) the degree of danger involved in deviating from the prescribed requirement is clearly less than the degree of risk in failing to attend to the emergency.*
|
||||
*(2) Nothing in this section permits—*
|
||||
*(a) the operation of an aircraft that is not registered in New Zealand or elsewhere; or*
|
||||
*(b) the breach of any prescribed requirement as to the airworthiness of an aircraft; or*
|
||||
*(c) the operation of an aircraft by a person who is not lawfully entitled to operate that aircraft*
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.80.8 State the pilot action required following deviation from the CA Act or rules in an emergency situation. CA Act 2023 sections 15(2) and 16(3)
|
||||
|
||||
Notify ATS immediately.
|
||||
Notify Directory ASAP.
|
||||
|
||||
***15 Duties of pilot-in-command in emergencies arising in flight***
|
||||
*(2) If the pilot-in-command breaches civil aviation legislation in accordance with this section, the pilot-in-command must—*
|
||||
*(a) immediately notify the relevant air traffic control service of the breach; and*
|
||||
*(b) as soon as practicable, notify the Director of the breach and the circumstances that necessitated it; and*
|
||||
*(c) if requested by the Director, provide to the Director a written report in respect of the breach.*
|
||||
|
||||
***16 Duties of pilot-in-command and operator in emergencies not arising in flight***
|
||||
*(3) If the pilot-in-command or the operator breaches civil aviation legislation in accordance with this section, the pilot-in-command or the operator (as the case may be) must—*
|
||||
*(a) immediately notify the relevant air traffic control service of the breach; and*
|
||||
*(b) as soon as practicable, notify the Director of the breach and the circumstances that necessitated it; and*
|
||||
*(c) if requested by the Director, provide to the Director a written report in respect of the breach.*
|
||||
|
||||
#### 16.82 Communications and Equipment
|
||||
|
||||
16.82.2 State the transponder code a pilot should set to indicate an emergency condition. AIP ENR
|
||||
16.82.4 State the transponder code a pilot should set to indicate a loss of communications. AIP ENR
|
||||
16.82.6 State the transponder code a pilot should set to indicate that the aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference. AIP ENR
|
||||
16.82.8 Describe the means by which ATC will verify the transmission of an emergency SSR transponder code. AIP ENR
|
||||
16.82.10 Describe the use of the speechless technique using unmodulated transmissions. AIP ENR
|
||||
16.82.12 Describe and interpret ground-air visual signal codes. AIP GEN
|
||||
16.82.14 Describe the procedures for directing a surface craft to a distress incident. AIP GEN
|
||||
16.82.16 State the procedures for the emergency activation of an ELT. AIP GEN
|
||||
16.82.18 State the pilot action required following the inadvertent transmission of an ELT. AIP GEN
|
||||
16.82.20 State the requirements for the operational testing of an ELT. AIP GEN
|
||||
16.82.22 State the procedures to be followed on receiving an ELT signal. AIP GEN
|
||||
##### 16.82.2 State the transponder code a pilot should set to indicate an emergency condition. AIP ENR
|
||||
|
||||
7700
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.82.4 State the transponder code a pilot should set to indicate a loss of communications. AIP ENR
|
||||
|
||||
7600
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.82.6 State the transponder code a pilot should set to indicate that the aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference. AIP ENR
|
||||
|
||||
7500
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.82.8 Describe the means by which ATC will verify the transmission of an emergency SSR transponder code. AIP ENR
|
||||
|
||||
***ENR 1.6 - 2 - Surveillance Procedures***
|
||||
*2.3.17 Whenever it has been established that an aircraft is transponding on code 7500 the controller will attempt to verify by RTF with the aircraft concerned that the code selection is intentional:*
|
||||
*“ ... (CALL SIGN) ... CONFIRM SQUAWKING SEVEN FIVE ZERO ZERO*
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.82.10 Describe the use of the speechless technique using unmodulated transmissions. AIP ENR
|
||||
|
||||
“YES” or “ROGER” activate transmitter once
|
||||
“NO” activate transmitter twice
|
||||
“SAY AGAIN” activate transmitter 3 times
|
||||
“AT NOMINATED POSITION” activate transmitter 4 times
|
||||
|
||||
*ENR 1.15 -6 SPEECHLESS TECHNIQUE USING UNMODULATED TRANSMISSIONS*
|
||||
*6.1.1 When a pilot is able to communicate only by unmodulated transmissions (e.g. when the transmitter is operative but the microphone is unserviceable), the following technique will be employed by ATS:*
|
||||
*(a) when an unmodulated transmission is heard, the ATS operator will request the pilot activate the transmitter three times; and*
|
||||
*(b) if the pilot complies ATS will frame questions requiring “YES” or “NO” answers to determine if the aircraft:*
|
||||
*(i) can continue visually; or*
|
||||
*(ii) can execute an instrument approach, or has reached a nominated position.*
|
||||
*6.1.2 This and any other information required will be obtained by requiring the pilot to use the following code:*
|
||||
*(a) “YES” or “ROGER” activate transmitter once*
|
||||
*(b) “NO” activate transmitter twice*
|
||||
*(c) “SAY AGAIN” activate transmitter 3 times*
|
||||
*(d) “AT NOMINATED POSITION” activate transmitter 4 times*
|
||||
*6.1.3 When it is established that the pilot of the aircraft can receive transmissions, control will be exercised in the normal manner, except that frequency changes will not be requested unless there is no alternative*
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.82.12 Describe and interpret ground-air visual signal codes. AIP GEN
|
||||
|
||||
***GEN 3.6 - 5.8 Ground–Air Emergency Visual Signalling Code***
|
||||
*5.8.1 The standard ground–to–air visual emergency signalling code and the standard visual signalling code for communication from ground search parties to search aircraft are detailed in Table GEN 3.6-2.*
|
||||
|
||||
![[Pasted image 20250726160429.png]]
|
||||
|
||||
*5.8.2 Symbols should be formed by using strips of fabric, parachute material, pieces of wood, stones or any other available material, taking the following into account:*
|
||||
*(a) Make symbols not less than 2.5 m high (larger if possible) and exactly as depicted.*
|
||||
*(b) Provide maximum colour contrast.*
|
||||
*(c) When ground is covered with snow, signals can be made by digging, shovelling, or trampling the snow. From the air the symbols will appear to be black.*
|
||||
*5.8.3 Endeavour to attract attention by other available means such as:*
|
||||
*(a) radio, signal light, flares, heliograph, smoke or flames;*
|
||||
*(b) a signal consisting of a square flag with above or below it a ball or anything resembling a ball;*
|
||||
*(c) the two flag signal corresponding to the letters NC of the international Code of Signals*
|
||||
*N — blue/white checks, 16 squares;*
|
||||
*C — blue/white/red/white/blue horizontal bars; and*
|
||||
*(d) sea marker dye*
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.82.14 Describe the procedures for directing a surface craft to a distress incident. AIP GEN
|
||||
|
||||
***GEN 3.6 - 5.5 Procedure for Directing a Surface Craft to a Distress Incident***
|
||||
*5.5.1 When it is necessary for a pilot to direct a surface craft to the place where an aircraft or surface craft is in distress, the pilot should do so by transmitting precise instructions by any means available. If such precise instructions cannot be transmitted, they should be given by carrying out the following procedure:*
|
||||
*(a) circle the surface craft at least once;*
|
||||
*(b) cross the projected course of the surface craft close ahead at low altitude:*
|
||||
*(i) rocking the aircraft; or*
|
||||
*(ii) opening and closing the throttle; or*
|
||||
*(iii) changing the propeller pitch.*
|
||||
*(c) then heading in the direction in which the surface craft is to be directed and*
|
||||
*(d) repeat these procedures until the surface craft acknowledges.*
|
||||
*5.5.2 Because of the high noise levels on board surface craft the sound of changes in throttle settings and propeller pitch may be less effective than rocking the aircraft, and are regarded as an alternative means of attracting attention.*
|
||||
*5.5.3 Current maritime signalling procedures are:*
|
||||
*(a) for acknowledging receipt of signals:*
|
||||
*(i) hoisting of the “Code pennant” (vertical red and white stripes) close up (meaning understood);*
|
||||
*(ii) flashing a succession of morse code “T”s (T -) by signal lamp;*
|
||||
*(iii) changing of heading.*
|
||||
*(b) for indicating inability to comply:*
|
||||
*(i) hoisting of the international flag “N” (blue/white checks, 16 squares);*
|
||||
*(ii) flashing a succession of morse code “N”s (N -:) by signal lamp.*
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.82.16 State the procedures for the emergency activation of an ELT. AIP GEN
|
||||
|
||||
Activate ASAP - While still in flight.
|
||||
|
||||
***GEN 3.6 - 6.2 ELT Activation***
|
||||
*6.2.1 To prevent valuable search time being wasted it is imperative that:*
|
||||
*(a) All ELTs are registered with RCCNZ.*
|
||||
*(b) Any ELT that is not automatically activated is switched on as soon as possible before or after any emergency and left on until rescued.*
|
||||
*(c) If the emergency situation is recovered, ATS or RCCNZ is notified first then the ELT is switched off.*
|
||||
*(d) If the ELT is switched off and ATS or RCCNZ have not been notified as soon as possible, it will be assumed that the aircraft has crashed and search planning and a SAR response will have commenced.*
|
||||
*6.2.2 The pilot of an aircraft in a distress situation should activate the ELT while still in flight.*
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.82.18 State the pilot action required following the inadvertent transmission of an ELT. AIP GEN
|
||||
|
||||
Check 121.5 Mhz before shutdown. Report to ATS.
|
||||
|
||||
***GEN 3.6 - 6.3 Inadvertent Activation***
|
||||
*6.3.1 Inadvertent activation of ELT has occurred on numerous occasions in New Zealand. It can occur as a result of aerobatics, hard landing, or accidental activation during aircraft servicing. To detect an inadvertent activation pilots should:*
|
||||
*(a) prior to engine shut down at the end of each flight, tune the aircraft receiver to 121.5 MHz and listen for ELT signals; and*
|
||||
*(b) if an ELT is heard, ensure that their own aircraft’s ELT is not operating. If it is found that it has been activated, take the action described in 6.3.2 then switch it off.*
|
||||
|
||||
*Note: Maintenance may be required before an automatic activation unit is returned to the armed position.*
|
||||
*6.3.2 Any person detecting the inadvertent activation of an ELT must report the activation immediately to the nearest ATS unit in order that any RCCNZ action commenced as a result of the transmission may be terminated.*
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.82.20 State the requirements for the operational testing of an ELT. AIP GEN
|
||||
|
||||
Max 3 sweeps and 20 seconds.
|
||||
First five minutes of the hour.
|
||||
On the ground.
|
||||
|
||||
***GEN 3.6 - 6.4 ELT Testing***
|
||||
*6.4.1 Live testing of 406 MHz is NOT permitted unless coordinated with RCCNZ at least two working days prior to the test, and with notification of the ELT HexID/UiN, time and location of the test, and the person to contact during the test.*
|
||||
*6.4.2 ELT transmitter test is authorised ONLY on 121.5 MHz as follows:*
|
||||
*(a) tests should be no longer than three audio sweeps and NOT exceed 20 seconds; and*
|
||||
*(b) tests may be conducted on 121.5 MHz only within the time period made up of the first five minutes after each hour. Emergency tests outside this time must be coordinated with both the nearest ATS unit and RCCNZ. Airborne ELT tests are NOT permitted.*
|
||||
|
||||
##### 16.82.22 State the procedures to be followed on receiving an ELT signal. AIP GEN
|
||||
|
||||
Position/Time where was first/last heard, strongest strength.
|
||||
|
||||
***GEN 3.6 - 6.5 ELT Reporting Procedures***
|
||||
*6.5.1 On receiving an ELT signal, pilots must report the following information to the nearest ATS unit:*
|
||||
*(a) aircraft position and time when the signal was first heard;*
|
||||
*(b) aircraft position and time when the signal was last heard;*
|
||||
*(c) aircraft position at maximum signal strength; and*
|
||||
*(d) aircraft level, strength and frequency of emergency signal on 121.5 MHz.*
|
||||
|
||||
|
||||
|
|
|
|||
Loading…
Add table
Add a link
Reference in a new issue